Detailed scriptural explanation.

Here follows a more an explanation based on scriptural references.

More than one Kingdom?

In "Psalm 103:19 "The Lord hath prepared his throne in the heavens; and his kingdom ruleth over all" points to the fact that God the Father's Kingdom encompasses the Universe.  An Jesus? What does the Bible say about what He does currently and what He will be doing?  He is in heaven and sits at the right hand of God the Father (Heb.1:3, Col.3:1) where He intercedes for us (Rom.8:34) against the allegations of our enemy. (Rev.12:10)

And what will Jesus do when after the second coming?  He will create a Kingdom on earth.  Zech. 14:9 "And the Lord shall be king over all the earth..."  Read also Luke 1:32-33 and Rev 11:15.  The Bible is therefore very clear on the fact that there are two Kingdoms.  One which spans the whole Universe, and that in future there will be a kingdom on earth under Jesus Christ.  But are these kingdoms the "kingdom of God" and "the kingdom of heaven"?  To Answer this question we must understand that the 12 apostles will reign with Christ over the new earth(Matt.19:28)  When the disciples ask Jesus in Matt.18:1 "Who is the greatest in the kingdom of heaven?" then they have the new earth in mind and not the whole universe.  Because in Matt.20:20-22 and Mark.10:35-37 we see clearly how the apostles think about what positions of power they can have in the Kingdom of Jesus.  The other Kingdom, which spans the whole universe, must be the Kingdom of God.
 

Incorrect teaching about the Kingdoms

It would be necessary to mention here the faulty teaching with regard to the "Kingdom of God" and the "Kingdom of Heaven".  Many people believe and are taught that the term "kingdom of heaven" is the "kingdom of God" in different words and that the reason why Matthew would rather use the words "Kingdom of heaven" is because he has to much respect to use the word "God" and wants to prevent any chance of using God's name in vain.   If that was Matthew's motivation, why would he be inconsequent about it?  He does use the words "kingdom of God" no less than 5 times in Matthew (Matt.6:33, 12:28, 19:24, 21:31, 21:43).  He also uses the word God on at least 50 other places in this book.  Why does Matthew often refer to the kingdom of heaven and not the other apostles?

The answer to this lies in the fact that every book describes Jesus from a different angle. (with a little overlapping).  Matthew writes about Jesus the "King and Messiah".  Mark writes about Jesus "the Servant", Luke on Jesus the "Perfect Man" and John on the Jesus "the Divine".  Since Matthew writes about Jesus "the King and Messiah", it would be logical that his references to Jesus' future kingdom, the kingdom of heaven, would be numerous.

Without getting bogged down by the fact that the new earth would be part of God's kingdom and many things can be said of both, for example Matt 5:3 compared with Luke 6:20, I believe the above evidence plus the list in the comparison (on page 3) would be sufficient to settle this matter.
 

The  Prerequisites: The process of rebirth.

Now we get to the most important part.  This is that the spiritual rebirth is a prerequisite for the kingdom of heaven and rebirth plus baptism and the believer's baptism with the Holy Spirit makes you a son/daughter of God and an inheritor of the kingdom of God.

1. Be Born Again.

In the Old testament we read a lot about faith and conversion, but never are these believers baptized with water or with the Holy Spirit.  What are the consequences of this?  All these believers must inherit the new earth (kingdom of heaven).  Read Gen.17:8 , Ex.32:13, Ps.37:9-11,18,29 and Matt.8:11.  A verse like Luke 13:28 must not be seen as in contradiction with the above as we must remember that the new earth is PART OF the kingdom of God.

Of what important matter is there no mention of in the old testament?  That of being born again (John 3:3) or as it says in the original Greek "born from above".  This is the same as mentioned in 1 John 5:1 (Born of God), 1 Pet. 1:3 and 1 Pet. 1:23. (Born Again)  In John 5:1-2 we can see that those who are born of God (those who born again) are called the children of God.  It is therefore obvious why we also do not find in the Old testament any believer called a child of God.  Even Abraham was not a child of God but a friend of God (James 2:23)

The five instances in the old Testament where there is mention of the "Sons of God", Gen.6:1-4, Job.1:6, Job.2:1, Job.38:7 and Dan.3:25,  it refers to angelic entities and not believers.  These "sons" does not have the same meaning as the "children/sons" in the new testament.   These "children/sons" in the new testament refers to a closer relationship with God,  a real father/son relationship.  It also must not be confused with how some translations Gal. 4:28 refer to Isaac as a "child of God" where it should  be "children of promise"( covenant).

It is then clear that when Luke 16:16 teaches us that: "The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached..." then it is not just empty words but that something more profound was to be taught from then onwards.  Something more the law and the prophets, which was about redemption of sin and the hope of the coming of the messiah.

If we look at the teaching of being born again, or being Born of God. it is a process where believers are born (again) to be children of God.  1Joh.5:1-2. Firstly, this "born of God" process is controlled by the Father. (John 3:3,  1Joh.2:29, 1 Joh.3:9, 1 Joh.4:7, 1 Joh.5:18).

How does he make this happen? 

1. The first step is when the blood of Jesus cleanses you from all sin. (Col. 1:14 ; Rev. 1:5 ; 1 John 5:1 ). An explanation of 1 John 5:1 follows later.

2. Secondly, God uses His Word in this process.(1 Pet.1:23).

If you need an even more detailed explanation of why you have to be born again, go to this page.

So far all believers are on the right track.  But we have to read the Word completely and in context.  There are 2 more things outstanding.

2. Be Baptized with the Holy Spirit

It is mentioned on Page 1 that John 1:12 that the believer can have the power to BECOME the sons of God.  This is the correct translation from the Greek from the word "ginomai".  This "become" word is in the Greek "aorist infinitive middle".  That means in simple language "aorist infinitive", a simple non repeatable action which happens at a specific point in time. The "middle voice" then refers to the subject (those who accepted Jesus) which take an action with regard to themselves.  According to the Greek grammar this "become" action of the children is not an automatic occurance, but an event where those who have ALREADY accepted Jesus,  takes a positive action to BECOME children of God.  That is what it says in John 1:12 and anything else is a subjective interpretation.

The Word teaches that the Holy Spirit also have a roll in the rebirth process.  When does that happen?  Is it when he comes to live in us at rebirth or is it when we are baptized with the Holy Spirit?  It is both.  We can see in John 16:7-11 that it is the Holy Spirit that prepares us to receive salvation through his blood.  But it is important to see that the work of the Spirit with regard to our salvation is not finished at rebirth but is continued with the baptism of the Holy Spirit.  Read Acts 8:15, Acts 10:47 and Acts 19:2. The Greek word "lambano" which was translated to "receive" means to "take hold of".  That does not imply an automatic  passive action.  In all these references this word "receive" is in the "active voice", which shows that the action is done by the subject of the verb.  Who receives? The person who asks for the gift of the Holy Spirit, they do the conscious act of asking or accepting the gift (baptism) of the Holy Spirit.  Can you see that we are not talking here about the reborn experience, but with the baptism of the Holy Spirit?

The same Greek word "lambano" is also used in the "active voice" in John 1:12 where it says: "But as many as received him"  Now that you know about it, this same word "lambano" are being used in the "active voice" in Rom.8:15 where it says: "For ye have not received the spirit of bondage again to fear; but ye have received the Spirit of adoption, whereby we cry, Abba, Father. "

Still not convinced about this baptism? Read further about this here

3. Be Baptized with water

The Bible teaches that there is a last factor that accomplishes transformation to being a son/daughter of God.

John 3:3-6 :"Jesus answered and said unto him, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God. [4] Nicodemus saith unto him, How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the second time into his mother's womb, and be born? [5] Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. [6] That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit."

In John 3:3 Jesus tells Nicodemus that he be born again in order to see the kingdom of God.  In verse 4 it shows that Nicodemus does not understand how a person can be born again and in verse 5 Jesus explains that he must be "born of water and of the Spirit".  The "born of the Spirit" we have seen refers to the work of the Holy Spirit which started with the born again experience. (John 16:7-8) He starts to do His work even before the rebirth.  The Holy Spirit then continues His work with regard to our rebirth when we are baptized in the Spirit.(Rom.8:15)  Although we have the responsibility to be obedient by asking for salvation, and baptism, the miracle of what happens during and  afterwards is in God's hands.

The "born" in verses 3 and 5 is in the Greek "aorist subjunctive passive".  "Aorist subjunctive" means "a simple action of which there is uncertainty because it has not happened yet".  This uncertainty is further emphasized by the word "Except".  "Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit...". The greek meaning of this word which is "ean me" emphasizes this even more.  It points to a situation of which the outcome is uncertain, depending on the circumstances.

The "passive voice" means that the subject (man in this case) receives the action (to be born) passively.  Although the person asks and acts in obedience, it is God who makes it happen.

Incorrect interpretations of the baptism verses.

The "Physical birth" interpretation

The aforementioned should also be sufficient to prove that "born of water" cannot refer to physical birth.  Why would Jesus tell Nicodemus to be born physically as if he has a choice about it?  Surely that is not a correct interpretation.   From 200AD(the first available information from extra biblical sources) until the transformation in the 16th century, the traditional interpretation of the water in John 3:5 was the water baptism. "Encyclopaedia of Religion and Ethics" Vol.2, p.393-401.  In the 16th century, Calvin said that the water and the spirit is the same thing.  The water refers to the cleansing aspect of the Spirit.  In the New Testament we find 2 references where the working of the Holy Spirit is compared to living water.  John 4:10-14 and John 7:37-39.  It refers to LIVING water and no matter how hard we try to see the water and the spirit in John 3:5 as one, the word "and" ("Kai") still remains to split the two into different concepts.  Maybe this is why the reformed church changed their interpretation to the so called "physical birth" interpretation.

The "water equals Word" interpretation

Another interpretation is that the water refers to the "Word of God" which is as we saw in 1 Pet. 1:23 also plays a role in rebirth.  With this interpretation the connection between the water and the Word is from Ef. 5:26.  This interpretation is not in conflict with the exact Greek meaning of John.3, it cannot be accepted for the following reasons:  The Greek word translated to "water" in John 3:5 is being used in all cases for normal water except for 4 exceptions: John 4:10-14, John 7:37-39, Ef.5:26, Rev.17:1,15.  In all 4 these cases it is clear from the context that the water is symbolic.  in John 3:5 there is no indication that the water is used as symbolic for something else.  If it is considered that this conversation between Jesus and Nicodemus happened about 30 years before the letter to the Ephesians was written (where the relationship between "water" and "Word" was used the 1st time) it is clear that if Jesus meant "Word" when he said "water", it would have been impossible to understand this symbolism.  Even though the water baptism is a simple process and Jesus explained it to Nicodemus logically, it does not mean that we have to be as confused as Nicodemus was.  Remember, For him it was a new message (Luk 16:16).

The complete plan for Salvation.

Enough about the difficult interpretation of John 3:5.  The logical interpretation, which is in perfect harmony with WHOLE gospel of Jesus Christ, is that "water" means physical water and therefore the water baptism.  Remember that the same apostle John who wrote John 3:5, also wrote John 5:1-8 and there he uses the water term as well when he refers to the water baptism.

When Peter closes off his speech after the first outpouring of the Holy Spirit with te following words: "Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified" (Acts 2:36) Then the people reacts not with a dead faith end just say "yes, we believe!" and that is the end of it.  No, They react with a living faith in the fact that Jesus is the Christ and ask in verse 37: "What shall we do?" and the answer follows in Verse 38 to be born again, be baptised and the baptism of the Holy Ghost.

In Hebrews 12:2 it says that Jesus is the "author and finisher" of our faith.  When it says in Titus 5:1 that He saves us by the "washing of regeneration" and in 1 Pet.3:21 that the baptism saves us, then we must not be confused.  In only confirms that fact that the baptism is part of the savings process of God.  Jesus' plan for redemption goes further than just saving us from everlasting death (Hell) unto everlasting life.  It entails to become sons and daughters of God and to inherit the kingdom of God, as co-inheritors of Jesus our saviour.

Can you see then that with the Preaching of the full gospel, the Kingdom of God (Luk 16:16)... nothing is taken away from the mercy and grace of Jesus and God!